https://www.gci.org/church/ministry/women9
That's a good read regarding what you mentioned.
Here's a good take away from the link, which can/should be applied to most of what is in the Bible: Common sense, church custom, and good principles of biblical interpretation all say that we should not take these verses literally—and almost no one does.
Keep in mind also, the Paul was writing within a cultural tradition that was not only homophobic, but also, if not mysoginist, somewhat close to it. It was also a culture that was drenched in superstition and ignorance about science, lacked respect, or failed to even possess a notion, of human rights, civil liberties, or even concepts of basic human freedoms; and lacked any appreciation for the diversity and complexity of humans, human behavior, human sexuality, etc.
The time and cultural traditions in which Paul was writing are wholly unsuitable to use as a standard to render judgment, let alone understanding, of modern humanity, given all the advances in science and human understanding that have occured since then.
Here's another issue. Apologists for the behavior of historical religious figures inevitably invoke the argument that it is inappropriate to use 21st century standards to judge the behavior of people who lived in different times and places with different beliefs and norms.
If true, then doesn't the converse also hold? If 21st century mores are unsuitable to judge those of, say, Paul's times, why is it not also the case that the mores of, say, Paul's times are suitable to judge those of the 21st century?
Still, you haven't answered the qeustion. What is the decision rule for lay people (who constitute most believers and who don't invoke Biblical commentary to inform their beliefs) to determine which writings and teachings of Biblical times remain valid, and which can be ignored?
To me, the best decision rule is the one cited above: ". . . 2e should not take these verses literally."