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Pats Possibly Caught Cheating...Again

They (the pats) could have been using bowling balls against the Colts in the afc championship game and they still would have won fwiw.
I think deflation of the ball mostly helps the passing game (specifically the qb gripping the ball)
Lagarrett blount ran the ball down indys throat iirc.

Having said that, there does need to be a harsh penalty if it is found that they definitely knowingly and intentionally deflated the balls

It's already been found out dawg.
 
Respectfully, this feels like talking out of your ***.

How would we even measure that? Is there some number of average points per pound of square inch deflation we can attribute to the change?

Another question that occurs to me: Don't the referees touch the ball all the time? Like every single play? If this is a huge difference in how the ball feels and behaves why didn't the refs, who presumably have been regularly handling footballs for a large portion of their lives, notice?

I'm assuming there is some advantage if they went to the trouble to do it.
 
I'm assuming there is some advantage if they went to the trouble to do it.

Or they subjectively believe there is some advantage.

Where I'm saying that David Stern is talking out of his *** is when he qualifies that advantage as "huge." How does he know? Is there any way to say what the net effect of the advantage is either in this particular game or on average? If it turned out that the actual difference over the course of a full game of underinflated footballs was the equivalent of 1.3 points, or roughly the difference between kicking a field goal from the 15 yard line vs. going for it on fourth and one, then what are we really talking about? Is that a "huge" advantage?
 
Or they subjectively believe there is some advantage.

Where I'm saying that David Stern is talking out of his *** is when he qualifies that advantage as "huge." How does he know? Is there any way to say what the net effect of the advantage is either in this particular game or on average? If it turned out that the actual difference over the course of a full game of underinflated footballs was the equivalent of 1.3 points, or roughly the difference between kicking a field goal from the 15 yard line vs. going for it on fourth and one, then what are we really talking about? Is that a "huge" advantage?

Perhaps he is talking out his butt. Personally in such cold weather I'd label it as a moderate advantage in the passing game. This would be due to the toughness of the ball and how that affects a persons ability to throw and catch the ball.

But it is the principal, idiotic rule or not. If it is found out that this was intentional and the Pats clearly cheated, again, then it is in the interest of the league, their image, and the fairness of games to level a harsh penalty. This was also done in the AFC Championship game with the Superbowl on the line.
 
Or they subjectively believe there is some advantage.

Where I'm saying that David Stern is talking out of his *** is when he qualifies that advantage as "huge." How does he know? Is there any way to say what the net effect of the advantage is either in this particular game or on average? If it turned out that the actual difference over the course of a full game of underinflated footballs was the equivalent of 1.3 points, or roughly the difference between kicking a field goal from the 15 yard line vs. going for it on fourth and one, then what are we really talking about? Is that a "huge" advantage?

The entire premise of this scandal is logically flawed as you have eluded to in your posts in this thread. The major contradiction is that the Patriots are generally considered to be somewhere on the spectrum between the football equivalent of Einstein and Darth Vader. One would expect at least a modest level of sophistication if they were to engage in an elaborate scheme to cheat. Furthermore, any rational cheating scheme would either be so deceptive as to never be detected or one that involved a huge aysemmetrical payout. The deflation of footballs fits neither. In fact, it is foolish in terms or controlling risk to engage in a cheating scheme that potentially has equal or greater value to your opponent.

With that said, being a Bills fan and loathing the Pats, I think there is a very low possibility that this was a concerted masterminded effort by the Pats organization. There are two likely explanations:

1. This is the work of one or two "Lone-Deflators." Perhaps two low level equipment and or general employees who decided to go rogue. I would guess this is the less likely of the two scenarios.

2. The more likely scenario is that the entire "air pressure measurement and chain of custody of game footballs" was botched in some fashion. If I had to make a bet, I would put a few bucks on the fact that the balls for both teams were never actually checked prior to the game despite claims by the league, otherwise.
 
1. This is the work of one or two "Lone-Deflators." Perhaps two low level equipment and or general employees who decided to go rogue. I would guess this is the less likely of the two scenarios.

2. The more likely scenario is that the entire "air pressure measurement and chain of custody of game footballs" was botched in some fashion. If I had to make a bet, I would put a few bucks on the fact that the balls for both teams were never actually checked prior to the game despite claims by the league, otherwise.

....I'm in the Pearl's corner on this one! Another question that I have is how in the world could 12 balls be tested and ok'd.....put into a large ball bag 2 hrs and 15 minutes before kick off in a packed stadium with tons of security both on the field and in the locker room.....and someone actually have time to take the balls out and deflate them by 2 pounds........and NOT HAVE SOMEONE SEE YOU DO IT???
 
Back in line!

yeah, now that your post got a buncha traction in a busier forum. and only after gettin called out.
yet my post gets moved before anyone can even reply.
thats just how it goes round here tho. i aint mad. gotten used to the aristo mods steppin all over us peon peasants.
 
Does anybody know how the balls are used during the game? Do both teams footballs get mixed together or does each team use their own balls during their offensive possession?

The answer to that would to a certain degree put my theory in jeopardy.
 
Sources earlier this season told ESPN NFL Insider Adam Schefter that the Colts had concerns about underinflated balls after their regular-season game against the visiting Patriots on Nov. 16.

During that game, Colts safety Mike Adams twice intercepted Tom Brady and gave the balls to the Colts' equipment manager to save -- and both times there were concerns about the balls feeling underinflated, sources told Schefter.

The balls are required to be inflated between 12.5 and 13.5 pounds per square inch and weigh between 14 and 15 ounces. Once approved by the referee, the balls are then put into ball bags and are set on the sidelines for each team. The ball bags are not guarded or watched in any way. When an official calls for a new football, a team's designated ball boy will get a new football from the ball bag and give it to the official.

https://m.espn.go.com/general/story?storyId=12202450
 
yeah, now that your post got a buncha traction in a busier forum. and only after gettin called out.
yet my post gets moved before anyone can even reply.
thats just how it goes round here tho. i aint mad. gotten used to the aristo mods steppin all over us peon peasants.

I try not to step on the peons, but for you I'll make an exception.
 
Another question that occurs to me: Don't the referees touch the ball all the time? Like every single play? If this is a huge difference in how the ball feels and behaves why didn't the refs, who presumably have been regularly handling footballs for a large portion of their lives, notice?

At least once, play was stopped to remove a ball from the game when the Pat's were on offense - it occurred during the start of the second half. There's video of it on You Tube. I've read that others were removed as well but I don't know if that's true or not. Of course we don't know why the ball(s) were removed from play - and I doubt the refs would make themselves readily available to answer this question at this point.
 
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Does anybody know how the balls are used during the game? Do both teams footballs get mixed together or does each team use their own balls during their offensive possession?

The answer to that would to a certain degree put my theory in jeopardy.

Quarterbacks and Kickers like to "rub up" their balls in different ways (the double entendres are flying in this thread). So yes teams are allowed to have their own set of footballs.
 
Respectfully, this feels like talking out of your ***.

How would we even measure that? Is there some number of average points per pound of square inch deflation we can attribute to the change?

Another question that occurs to me: Don't the referees touch the ball all the time? Like every single play? If this is a huge difference in how the ball feels and behaves why didn't the refs, who presumably have been regularly handling footballs for a large portion of their lives, notice?

total Psi of a properly inflated ball is only 13 PSI. 2 PSI is significant.
 
total Psi of a properly inflated ball is only 13 PSI. 2 PSI is significant.

I think it's safe to say that it's easier to throw and catch a ball that is slightly deflated. And being you can grip the ball better there is less of a chance of fumbling it as well. How significant an advantage this is, is debate-able. But the telling allegation to me is that 11 of the 12 balls were deflated - the 12th ball was probably used for kicking purposes being there's no discernible advantage (and probably a disadvantage) to kicking a deflated football. If it can be proven that the 12th ball was the "k-ball" then I think that represents a conscious effort to cheat by The Pats and the NFL should come down hard on them.

Otherwise this is just a lot of smoke.
 
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