One Brow said:
Refuting Walker's claim, to the degree it happened, it not the same as supporting Meese's claim (which the advocate also refuted).
Heh...
Meese said this: "...[Judge Walker found] that it is beyond "any doubt that parents' genders are irrelevant to children's developmental outcomes." These assertions appear in the opinion's "findings of fact" section, yet they are not facts. These "findings" derive from arbitrary and capricious non-analysis and are forcefully contradicted by evidence in the court record." I realize that Meese's entire statement was referring to a wide variety of alleged facts, not just those pertaining to the putative irrelevance of parental gender. But that is what our discussion has been about. I broke those down separately, and it was only this last claim that we have been discussing since that post.
It takes virtually nothing from Meese to refute this. All he has to show is that there is *some* (however slight) doubt about the claimed irrelevancy of gender. Such doubt need not be in any way related to children raised by same-sex "couples," but it can be. Your statement above was in response to mine, citing the study of Stacy and Biblarz, so let's just look at that alone for a second. Make no mistake about it, both of these researchers are homosexual and both are strong advocates of same-sex marriage. Even so, while noting that "it is the claim that the gender mix of parents has no effect on their children’s gender behavior, interests, or development that cries out for sociological explanation," they say:
"Virtually all of the published research claims to find no differences in the sexuality of children reared by lesbigay parents and those raised by nongay parents—but none of the studies that report this finding attempts to theorize about such an
implausible outcome. Yet it is
difficult to conceive of a
credible theory of sexual development that would not expect the adult children of lesbigay parents to display a somewhat higher incidence of homoerotic desire, behavior, and identity than children of heterosexual parents"
In other words, "virtually all of the published research" offers up the "implausible" as being the actual case, without even a semblance of "credible theory" to explain such an implausibility. This may well be what Meese had in mind when referring to what "common sense" tells us, with or without the assistance of psychologists with a social agenda they wish to implement. Stacy and Biblarz continue:
"In fact, the only “theory” of child development we can imagine in which a child’s sexual development would bear no relationship to parental genes, practices, environment, or beliefs would be an
arbitrary one. Yet this is precisely the outcome that most scholars report, although the limited
empirical record does not justify it." Although I did not quote it all, they first looked at conceivable expectations generated by (1) biological determinist theory, (2) social constructionist theory, (3) psychoanalytic theory and/or (4) J. Harris’s (1998) maverick theory, all of which they say would predict relevant differences, before making this second statement.
Once again they clearly state that the "empirical record" does not justify the "arbitrary" theory of child development which Walker said was "beyond doubt." That after having already said that it was so "implausible" as to make difficult to even conceive of how his theory could be "credible." How much evidence exists for an "arbitrary" claim that is NOT supported by the empirical record and which is otherwise so "implausible" as to be "inconceivable?" Looking at it from the other side, in such a case the "evidence" against such a claim exists on virtually every street corner. Yet you refuse to give any credence to it, Eric. I wonder why?