RandyForRubio
Well-Known Member
Let’s run this scenario again (and probably again).Rittenhouse had already shot and killed two other people. Pointing the gun at him was 100% justified. So that said, I find it strange that you can easily an unequivocally call Rittenhouse's use of deadly force self defense but are unsure if the other guy had justification to use deadly force. Based on our current laws, which are flawed and should be changed, both of them had every right to shoot the other. Self defense all around.
Grossenkreutz TESTIFIED IN COURT that Rittenhouse did not have his gun pointing at him. That he approached Rittenhouse with his arms in the air, and nothing happened. Then Grossenkreutz admitted that after that he drew his gun on Rittenhouse and advanced, and that’s when Rittenhouse fired. Again, that is testimony from Grossenkreutz. So nothing happened to Grossenkreutz until he pointed his gun at somebody. The only people that were shot were people that physically attacked or pointed a gun at Rittenhouse. That’s textbook self defense. Whether he should have been there or not is irrelevant to the legality of it.