Atheist Preacher and SirkAss setting the standard for intellectual dishonesty in this thread. I would have expected the typical results driven commentary from Sticky, but I was a little let down by A_P, who is always top notch in his commentary.
You call the word nonsense and untranslatable then divert around JazzSpazz's Leviticus quote, which it is quite obvious to non-homosexual scholars (and a good deal of homosexual ones too now) that this is where Paul's new word originated from. But when you want to drive a point home, get Atheist Preacher to sustain the brethren...
Right, they walked around bathhouses nekked and looked the other way when there junk fell into a boy's mouth.
This is a well used fallacy among the intellectually dishonest. Lack of literature on the subject is in no way evidence that it wasn't known. There are a half a billion conceivable reasons why it wasn't commonly discussed, but screw Occam's Razor here eh? Doesn't really matter as Plato wrote about it anyway.
Quite the quaint claim but unsubstantiated nonetheless.
Because those words were not inclusive, as you've pointed out yourself.
The variety of available words that unsuitably fit Pauls definition is exaclty why he combined with explanation two other words. Claiming his choice to his audience as "nonsensical" is irrational based on the supporting literature. It's also perfectly consisten with Paul's practice of doing such. He invented a couple hundred new terms to match his "new" meaning.
Many things are inferred culturally and need not be expounded upon. We have no reason to believe homosexuallity wasn't one of them inside Hebrew society when in fact the opposite is culturally established. But let us pretend otherwise. There are people living on Mars too.
You've stated 23 available descriptives. Had Paul used one then you'd no doubt be explaining that away as narrowly encompassing. Paul created a new word inclusive of all others.
Paul's use of the word "arsenokoitai" in the original Greek in 1 Corinthians is literally untranslatable, much less into anything relating to homosexuals.
Do you eat shrimp or wear shirts that have two different kinds of fabric? Those are biblical "abominations" too. If homosexuality is at the same level of sin as those then you're making a big to do about nothing.
You call the word nonsense and untranslatable then divert around JazzSpazz's Leviticus quote, which it is quite obvious to non-homosexual scholars (and a good deal of homosexual ones too now) that this is where Paul's new word originated from. But when you want to drive a point home, get Atheist Preacher to sustain the brethren...
1) Homosexuality didn't exist as a concept in Biblical days at all.
Right, they walked around bathhouses nekked and looked the other way when there junk fell into a boy's mouth.
This is a well used fallacy among the intellectually dishonest. Lack of literature on the subject is in no way evidence that it wasn't known. There are a half a billion conceivable reasons why it wasn't commonly discussed, but screw Occam's Razor here eh? Doesn't really matter as Plato wrote about it anyway.
There were men who had sex with other men or boys, but they weren't considered "gay." It simply never occurred to anyone that there was such a thing as a fundamental homosexual orientation/identity rather than just isolated homosexual acts.
Quite the quaint claim but unsubstantiated nonetheless.
2) Some of the words translated as "homosexuality" in fact are referring to anal intercourse, which need not be with a man.
Again this is Paul. And these are the examples I mentioned to colton earlier. The word used by Paul in Greek here is "arsenokoitai." It is literally a nonsense compound word that there is no record of any prior usage of in any source material. There were words that meant homosexuality available and Paul chose not to use those.
Because those words were not inclusive, as you've pointed out yourself.
The variety of available words that unsuitably fit Pauls definition is exaclty why he combined with explanation two other words. Claiming his choice to his audience as "nonsensical" is irrational based on the supporting literature. It's also perfectly consisten with Paul's practice of doing such. He invented a couple hundred new terms to match his "new" meaning.
3) For something that is supposed to be such a terrible sin, there is very little in the Bible that could even *possibly* be construed as condemning homosexuality... six or seven passages at most, and many of these are suspect, and all but the Sodom story are very brief one-line or two-line sort of things. Don't you think there would have been more material on this if it's such an important issue? By way of comparison, look at all the Biblical material on adultery and divorce.
Many things are inferred culturally and need not be expounded upon. We have no reason to believe homosexuallity wasn't one of them inside Hebrew society when in fact the opposite is culturally established. But let us pretend otherwise. There are people living on Mars too.
I find the point on the attempt to rape angels to be fair.4) Most significant of all, I think, for those wishing to construe the Sodom story as one which preaches against homosexuality, is that homosexuality is never identified as Sodom's sin. Sodom does, in fact, become a constant symbol of sinfulness in the OT, one which various prophets refer back to as an example of how not to be. But the sin of Sodom is identified explicitly in several places, most notably Ezekiel 16, as being morally and ethically lax, ignoring the poor and practicing the worst inhospitality. Further, none of the other passages traditionally understood as condemning homosexuality made any reference to the Sodom story... which at the very least would be very unusual, since the Biblical authors liked to tie their teachings back to well-known stories.
Human sexuality is a weird and twisted web with a spectrum of desires. To piggyback a little bit on AthiestPreacher's point though even when there was a concept of men sleeping with other young men the Greeks had a word for that "paiderasste." That's not the word used by Paul in 1 Corinthians (the actual word is a nonsense compound that appears nowhere else prior to Paul's usage) but it gets translated as being about homosexuals in some standard texts anyway and is used (including in this very thread) as an example of biblical prohibition.
You've stated 23 available descriptives. Had Paul used one then you'd no doubt be explaining that away as narrowly encompassing. Paul created a new word inclusive of all others.