1) Homosexuality didn't exist as a concept in Biblical days at all. There were men who had sex with other men or boys, but they weren't considered "gay." It simply never occurred to anyone that there was such a thing as a fundamental homosexual orientation/identity rather than just isolated homosexual acts.
2) Some of the words translated as "homosexuality" in fact are referring to anal intercourse, which need not be with a man.
3) For something that is supposed to be such a terrible sin, there is very little in the Bible that could even *possibly* be construed as condemning homosexuality... six or seven passages at most, and many of these are suspect, and all but the Sodom story are very brief one-line or two-line sort of things. Don't you think there would have been more material on this if it's such an important issue? By way of comparison, look at all the Biblical material on adultery and divorce.
4) Most significant of all, I think, for those wishing to construe the Sodom story as one which preaches against homosexuality, is that homosexuality is never identified as Sodom's sin. Sodom does, in fact, become a constant symbol of sinfulness in the OT, one which various prophets refer back to as an example of how not to be. But the sin of Sodom is identified explicitly in several places, most notably Ezekiel 16, as being morally and ethically lax, ignoring the poor and practicing the worst inhospitality. Further, none of the other passages traditionally understood as condemning homosexuality made any reference to the Sodom story... which at the very least would be very unusual, since the Biblical authors liked to tie their teachings back to well-known stories.
Isn't "thou shalt not murder" one of the 10 Commandments, and therefore "so obvious" that, as referenced, no other guidance was needed? But unless I'm mistaken, "no man shalt bang another dude" isn't one of those ten. Again, unless I'm mistaken. I mean, I didn't go to Sunday School or anything.
Horribly flawed logic.
Romans 1:18-32 (read the whole chapter though)
18-"For the wrath of God is revealed from Heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;"
24-"Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:"
26-"For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:"
27-"And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."
Genesis 19
5-"And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them." (Know in this and many other bible instances is referring to "sexual intercourse", look it up if you don't believe me)
7-"And said, I pray you, brethren, do not so wickedly."
13-"For we will destroy this place, because the cry of them is waxen great before the face of the Lord; and the Lord hath sent us to destroy it." (The Lord did not send the Angels to destroy Sodom because they were inhospitable, there would have to be much more to it)
@AthiestPreacher - As to Ezekiel 16, I think you missed the "abomination" part of the explaination as to why Sodom was destroyed.
Leviticus 18:22 "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."
Deuteronomy 23:17 "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel." (why is whore connected to women and sodomite connected with men? I think I know the answer.)
1 Timothy 1:9-10 "...that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers (10) For whoremongers,
for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;"
1 Corinthins 6:9 "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,"
Jude 1:7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."
Basically the Old and New Testament do in my understanding of these verses state very clearly that sexual intercourse with another man is not right in God's eyes. It also clearly states that it was a specific issue with Sodom, which is why it is referred to as Sodomy in many cases. Romans also uses the words of men "burned in their lust one towards another", which I feel covers the difference someone was trying to make between "homosexuality, and the act of having homosexual sex". I don't think it is as unclear as some of you say it is, but I would like to hear more of your angle and take on the subject.
Ok, this part is a joke, but it made me laugh.
@SalmonHobo - Exodus 20:17 "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ***, nor any thing that is thy neighbour's."
See how the 10 commandments cover this issue? Ok, not really, but it made me chuckle.
